दारोगा (मुख्य) परीक्षा (paper-1) हल प्रश्न पत्र- 5
दारोगा (मुख्य) परीक्षा (paper-1) हल प्रश्न पत्र- 5
English Language
Directions (1-7): The victory of the small Greek democracy of Athens over the mighty Persian Empire in 490 B.C. is one of the most famous events in history. Darius, king of the Persian Empire, was furious because Athens had interceded for the other Greek city-states in revolt against Persian domination. In anger the king sent an enormous army to defeat Athens. He thought it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire. Persia was ruled by one man. In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule. Ennobled by this participation, Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state. Perhaps this was the secret of the remarkable victory at Marathon, which freed them from Persian rule. On their way to Marathon, the Persians tried to fool some Greek city-states by claiming to have come in peace. The frightened citizens of Delos refused to believe this. Not wanting to abet the conquest of Greece, they fled from their city and did not return until the Persians had left. They were wise, for the Persians next conquered the city of Eritrea and captured its people. Tiny Athens stood alone against Persia. The Athenian people went to their sanctuaries. There they prayed for deliverance. They asked their gods to expedite their victory.
The Athenians refurbished their weapons and moved to the plain of Marathon, where their little band would meet the Persians. At the last moment, soldiers from Plataca reinforced the Athenian troops. The Athenian army: attacked, and Greek citizens fought: bravely. The power of the mighty Persians: was offset by the love that the Athenians: had for their city. Athenians defeated the Persians in both archery and hand combat. Greek soldiers seized Persian ships and burned them, and the Persians fled in terror. Herodotus, a famous historian, reports that 6,400 Persians died, compared to only 192 Athenians.
Q 1. The Athenians were strengthened by soldiers who arrived from Plataea. When did this happen in the war timeline?
(a) At the beginning when king Darius sent an enormous army to defeat Athens
(b) After the Athenians defeated the Persians in both archery and hand combat
(c) Nearing the end of the war
(d) Not clear from the passage
Q 2. Which statement from the passage would best describe that the Athenians were fiercely patriotic?
(a) In Athens, however, all citizens helped to rule.
(b) They asked their gods to lood ex expedite their victory.
(c) Athenians defeated the qua Persians in both archery and ab hand combat.
(d) Ennobled by this participation, Athenians were prepared to die for their city-state.
Q 3. h best Choose the word which describes the underlined word. Athens had interceded for the other Greek city-states in revolt against Persian domination.
(a) refused help to
(b) intervened on behalf of
(c) wanted to fight
(d) given orders for all to fight
Q 4. What could be Darius's reason to send an enormous army to defeat Athens?
(a) He thought the army would irritate the enemy.
(b) He thought it would take drastic steps to pacify the rebellious part of the empire.
(c) He wanted to weaken the Persians.
(d) Insufficient information
Q 5. Give another word which means the same as ennobled (as meant in the passage).
(a) embalmed
(b) honoured
(c) sacrificed
(d) tortured
Q 6. After conquering Delos, which city did the Persians conquer next?
(a) Greece
(b) Eritrea
(c) Athens
(d) None of these
Q 7. According to the death toll reported by Herodotus, which army bilost more lives?
(a) Persian
(b) Athnian dow
(c) Both armies lost equally
(d) The report was inaccurate
Directions (8): The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally t means "a good death." The American Heritage Dictionary defines it as "the act of killing a person painlessly for reasons of mercy."
Such killing can be done through active means, such as administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as withholding medical care or food and water. In recent years in the United States, there have been numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news. They usually involve the deliberate killing of ill or incapacitated persons by relatives or friends who plead that they can no longer bear to see their loved ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are often dealt with leniently by our legal system, and the media usually portrays them as compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another from unbearable suffering. The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a bigger, more insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing numbers of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding life sustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves. While it is illegal to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many cases the law has put its stamp of approval on causing death by omitting needed care. Further, many states have "living will" laws designed to protect those who withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court rulings which have approved of patients being denied care and even starved and dehydrated to death. Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept hidden from the public. Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their deaths might be attributed to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them. Further, it is often relatives of the patient who request that care be withheld. In one court case, the court held that decision to withhold life sustaining care may be made not only by close family members but also by a number of third parties, and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if there is no disagreement between decision makers and medical staff. The court went so far as to rule that a nursing home may not refuse to participate in the fatal withdrawal of food and water from an incompetent patient!. "Extraordinary" or "heroic" treatment need not be used when the chance for recovery is poor and medical intervention would serve only to prolong the dying process. But to deny customary and reasonable care or to deliberately starve or dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or very ill should not be permitted. Most of the cases coming before the courts do not involve withholding heroic measures from imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for denying basic care, such as administration of food and water, to people who are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are permanently incapacitated. These people could be expected to live indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were given food and water and minimal treatment. No one has the right to judge that another's life is not worth living. The basic right to life should not be abridged because someone decides that someone else's quality of life is too low. If we base the right to life on quality of life standards, there is no logical place to draw the line. To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive attitudes towards people with serious and incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect. We must also enact positive legislation that will protect vulnerable people from those who consider their lives meaningless or too costly to maintain and who would cause their deaths by withholding lifesustaining care such as food.
Q 8. The style of narration used by the author can best be described as -
(a) Compassionate
(b) Pleading
(c) Argumentative
(d) Indicative
Directions (9-14): The biggest house of cards, the longest tongue, and of course, the tallest man: these are among the thousands of records logged in the famous Guinness Book of Records. Created in 1955 after a debate concerning Europe's fastest game bird, what began as a marketing tool sold to pub landlords to promote Guinness, an Irish drink, became the bestselling copyright title of all time (a category that excludes books such as the Bible and the Koran). In time, the book would sell 120 million copies in over 100 countries-quite a leap from its humble beginnings. In its early years, the book set its sights on satisfying man's innate curiosity about the natural world around him. Its two principal fact finders, twins Norris and Ross McWhirter, scoured the globe to collect empirical facts. It was their task to find and document aspects of life that can be sensed or observed, things that can be quantified or measured. But not just any things. They were only interested in superlatives the biggest and the best. It was during this period that some of the hallmark Guinness Records were documented, answering such questions as "What is the brightest star?" and "What is the biggest spider?" Once aware of the public's thirst for such knowledge, the book's authors began to branch out to cover increasingly obscure, littleknown facts. They started documenting human achievements as well. A forerunner for reality television, the Guinness Book gave people a chance to become famous for accomplishing eccentric, often pointless tasks. Records were set in 1955 for consuming 24 raw eggs in 14 minutes and in 1981 for the fastest solving of a Rubik's Cube (which took a mere 38 seconds). In 1979 a man yodelled non-stop for ten and a quarter hours. In its latest incarnation, the book has found a new home on the internet. No longer restricted to the confines of physical paper, the Guinness World Records website contains seemingly innumerable facts concerning such topics as the most powerful combustion engine, or the world's longest train. What is striking, however, is that such facts are found sharing a page with the record of the heaviest train to be pulled with a beard. While there is no denying that each of these facts has its own, individual allure, the latter represents a significant deviation from the education-oriented facts of earlier editions. Perhaps there is useful knowledge to be gleaned regarding the tensile strength of a beard, but this seems to cater to an audience more interested in seeking entertainment than education. Originating as a simple bar book, the Guinness Book of Records has evolved over decades to provide insight into the full spectrum of modern life. And although one may be more likely now to learn about the widest human mouth than the highest number of casualties in a single battle of the Civil War, the Guinness World Records website offers a telling glimpse into the future of fact-finding and record-recording.
Q 9. A well written article should have proper structuring. Which of the following best summarizesthe organization of this passage?
(a) Introduction, history, conclusion
(b) Exposition, history, conclusion
(c) Introduction, history, exposition, conclusion
(d) None of these
Q 10. As per the given passage, the most significant difference between older editions of the Guinness Book of Records and the new Guinness World Records website involves–
(a) Change from fact-finding to the recording of achievements
(b) Use of facts as a means to promote Guinness
(c) Overall increase in the total number of facts presented
(d) A shift in focus from educational to entertaining material
Q 11. Fill in each blanks with a, an, or the. best way to quench your thirst hot day is to drink on glass of lemonade. -
(a) a, an, a
(b) the, an, a
(c) the, an, the
(d) the, a, a
Q 12. Choose the correct word to fill the gap.
Varun's lime green boots were a perfect_________ to his jacket.
(a) compliment
(b) complement
(c) caomplaint
(d) complained
Q 13. Which one from the given options is not a synonym of HALLMARK?
(a) Tell-tale sign
(b) Advertisement
(c) Distinctive feature
(d) Indicator
Q 14. "Its two principal fact finders, twins Norris and Ross McWhirter, scoured the globe to collect empirical facts." Based on the text, what is the best definition for empirical?
(a) Natural
(b) Derived from experience
(c) Recordable
(d) Accurate
Directions (15-19): I did not give him very close attention. The fact is, I was more interested in his adventures than in his high politics. I reckoned that Karolides and his affairs were not my business, leaving all that to him. So a lot that he said slipped clean out of my memory. I remember that he was very clear that the danger to Karolides would not begin till he had got to London, and would come from the very highest quarters, where there would be no thought of suspicion. He mentioned the name of a woman-Julia Czechenyi-as having something to do with the danger. She would be the decoy, I gathered, to get Karolides out of the care of his guards.
He talked, too, about a Black Stone and a man that lisped in his speech, and he described very particularly somebody that he never referred to without a shudder-an old man with a young voice who could hood his eyes like a hawk. He spoke a good deal about death, too. He was mortally anxious about winning through with his job, but he didn't care a rush for his life. 'I reckon it's like going to sleep when you are pretty well tired out, and waking to find a summer day with the scent of hay coming in at the window. I used to thank God for such mornings way back in the Blue-Grass country, and I guess I'll thank Him when I wake up on the other side of Jordan.' Next day he was much more cheerful, and read the life of Stonewall Jackson much of the time. I went out to dinner with a mining engineer I had got to see on business, and came back about half-past ten in time for our game of chess before turning in. (The Thirty-None Steps - by John Buchan)
Q 15. "I reckon it's like going to sleep when you are pretty well tired out, and waking to find a summer day with the scent of hay coming in at the window." These lines are an analogy for -
(a) What the narrator imagines the experience of death to be like
(b) What Karolides imagines the experience of death to be like
(c) The speaker is describing his fluctuating moods
(d) This is analogous to the narrator's mention of "high politics"
Q 16. the danger to Karolides would not begin till he had got to London." Which of the given options are not perceived as sources of danger to Karolides?
(a) a woman-Julia Czechenyi who would be the decoy
(b) a man who lisped in his speech
(c) the narrator's companion
(d) an old man with a young voice
Q 17. Choose the correct form of the word to fill the gap.
This show is going out________.
(a) life
(b) live
(c) lives
(d) lived
Q 18. The narrator is interested in his companion's "adventures than in his high politics". What does it tell us about the narrator?
(a) The narrator is a political man.
(b) The narrator does not meddle in the affairs of Karolides.
(c) The narrator is a man of action.
(d) The narrator does not want to be implicated in his companion's plot.
Q 19. He talked, too, about a Black Stone and a man that lisped in his speech, and he described very particularly somebody that he never referred to without a shudder-an old man with a young voice who could hood his eyes like a hawk. Choose the option which is not a synonym of SHUDDER.
(a) Wail
(b) Quiver
(c) Twitch
(d) Tremble
Directions (20): "Necessity/ Clothing Items" include linens (sheets; pillowcase; blanket; towels) and clothing (undergarments; gym shorts; T-shirts; socks; pants; jacket; raingear; shoes or boots).
"Contraband" includes altered, outof-place, or excesses of authorized property; and any item which an offender is prohibited to possess or obtain while in custody, unless received by the offender as the result of a State or Federal court order or legitimately through the litigation process. Two sub-groups of contraband are: (1) Dangerous Represents a threat to the security and safety of the unit, possession of which violates Agency rules, or State or Federal law.
Includes, but is not limited to: items related to security threat groups; weapons; intoxicants; currency or negotiable instruments; tobacco products; tools; ammunition; explosives; combustible or flammable items; altered, damaged, or repaired internal components or electrical cords of electrical equipment; cell phones; controlled substances; and authorized medicine, if not used in the manner prescribed. (2) Non-Dangerous - Represents a threat to management of the unit, possession of which violates Agency rules. Includes, but is not limited to: authorized property which has been altered, damaged, is in excess of allowable amounts, or is out of place (i.e., a razor at recreation, magazine in the dining hall); any item not authorized for the offender to possess; and any item made from State property without authorization.
Q 20. Which one of the given options is not a synonym of LEGITIMATELY?
(a) Virtuously
(b) Absolutely
(c) Righteously
(d) Decorously
Q 21. Which of the following options shows the following sentence in Passive voice?
Vrinda has installed a new computer software.
(a) A new computer software has been installed by Vrinda.
(b) Vrinda will install a new computer software.
(c) A new computer software was installed by Vrinda.
(d) Has Vrinda installed a new computer software?
Q 22. Choose the option which does not give the correct plural of.
AMPHORA
(a) amphorae
(b) amphories
(c) amphoree
(d) amphoras
Q 23. Which one of the given options is not a noun?
(a) nation
(b) nationwide
(c) native
(d) nativity
Q 24. Which one of the given options is spelled correctly?
(a) pattisirie
(b) pattisserie
(c) patiserie
(d) patisserie
Directions (25): "Necessity / Clothing Items" include linens (sheets; pillowcase; blanket; towels) and clothing (undergarments; gym shorts; T-shirts; socks; pants; jacket; raingear; shoes or boots).
Contraband" includes altered, outof-place, or excesses of authorized property; and any item which an offender is prohibited to possess or obtain while in custody, unless received by the offender as the result of a State or Federal court order or legitimately through the litigation process. Two sub-groups of contraband are: (1) Dangerous Represents a threat to the security and safety of the unit, possession of which violates Agency rules, or State or Federal law.
Includes, but is not limited to: items related to security threat groups; weapons; intoxicants; currency or negotiable instruments; tobacco products; tools; ammunition; explosives; combustible or flammable items; altered, damaged, or repaired internal components or electrical cords of electrical equipment; cell phones; controlled substances; and authorized medicine, if not used in the manner prescribed. (2) Non-Dangerous - Represents a threat to management of the unit, possession of which violates Agency rules. Includes, but is not limited to: authorized property which has been altered, damaged, is in excess of allowable amounts, or is out of place (i.e., a razor at recreation, magazine in the dining hall); any item not authorized for the offender to possess; and any item made from State property without authorization.
Q 25. Give one word for-Goods that have been imported or exported illegally.
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Contrabass
(c) Contraband
(d) Contrarian
Q 26. Complete these sentences using the del correct form of the verb in brackets. Choose the present perfect or present perfect continuous tense.
(a) Prof. Gupta ______the same set of notes to his students for the last ten years.
(b) Sameena ______nearly a million rupees to the Women Welfare fund this year. (give)
(a) will have given, is giving
(b) will give, will give
(c) is giving, will be giving
(d) has been giving, has given
Q 27. Fill in each blanks with a, an, or the.
There is some water in ____pink jug on____table.
(a) the, an
(b) the, the
(c) a, an
(d) an, the
Q 28. Choose the correct spelling out of the given options.
(a) apocallapse
(b) apocalypss
(c) apocalapse
(d) apocalypse
Q 29. Fill in each blanks with a, an, the or some.
There was ________old man living next door. He once offered me _____cup of coffee and____ cake.
(a) some, the, a
(b) a, a, a
(c) an, a, some
(d) a, a, some
Q 30. Which of the following options shows the following sentence in Passive voice?
They expected us to sign the contract.
(a) We were expected to sign the contract.
(b) Are we expected to sign the contract?
(c) We will sign the contract.
(d) They expect us to sign the contract.
Q 31. Choose the order which correctly defines quantifiers.
Quantifiers are words that ______and modify____.
(a) precede, adverbs
(b) precede, articles
(c) succede, nouns
(d) precede, nouns
Q 32. Fill in the blank to connect two parts of the sentence with appropriate words.
Your cat is being looked after by your sister so you ______about its safety.
(a) needn't worry
(b) need to worry
(c) won't worry
(d) should worry
Q 33. Fill in the blank with appropriate word from the given options.
Cooking for so many people looks like hard work. I will take over from you when you____.
(a) are tired
(b) go tired
(c) get tired
(d) will be tired
Q 34. Fill in each blanks with a, an, the or some.
You must find____ way to knock ____nail in without using___ hammer.
(a) a, some, some
(b) the, some, an
(c) some, the, a
(d) a, an, some
Q 35. Choose the correct group of buhomonyms.
(a) breath/breadth; pore/pored
(b) birth/death; ate/eat
(c) breath/berth; pore/pore
(d) birth/berth; pore/pour
Directions (36): The word is of Greek origin and literally means "a good death." The American Heritage Dictionary defines it as "the act of killing a a person painlessly for reasons of mercy."
Such killing can be done through active means, such as administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as withholding medical care or food and water. In recent years in the United States, there have been numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news. They usually involve the deliberate killing of ill or incapacitated persons by relatives or friends who plead that they can no longer bear to see their loved ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are often dealt with leniently by our legal system, and the media usually portrays them as compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another from unbearable suffering. The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a bigger, more insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing numbers of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding life sustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves. While it is illegal to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many cases the law has put its stamp of approval on causing death by omitting needed care. Further, many states have "living will" laws designed to protect those who withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court rulings which have approved of patients being denied care and even starved and dehydrated to death. Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept hidden from the public. Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their deaths might be attributed to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them. Further, it is often relatives of the patient who request that care be withheld. In one court case, the court held that decision to withhold life sustaining care may be made not only by close family members but also by a number of third parties, and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if there is no disagreement between decision makers and medical staff. The court went so far as to rule that a nursing home may not refuse to : participate in the fatal withdrawal of food and water from an incompetent patient! "Extraordinary" or "heroic" treatment need not be used when the chance for recovery is poor and medical intervention would serve only to prolong the dying process. But to deny customary and reasonable care or to deliberately starve or dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or very ill should not be permitted. Most of the cases coming before the courts do not involve withholding heroic measures from imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for denying basic care, such as administration of food and water, to people who are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are permanently incapacitated. These people could be expected to live indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were given food and water and minimal treatment. No one has the right to judge that another's life is not worth living. The basic right to life should not be abridged because someone decides that someone else's quality of life is too low. If we base the right to life on quality of life standards, there is no logical place to draw the line. To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive attitudes towards people with serious and incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect. We must also enact positive legislation that will protect vulnerable people from those who consider their lives meaningless or too costly to maintain and who would cause their deaths by withholding lifesustaining care such as food.
Q 36. Finally the author writes, "Despite the ravages of their diseases, they polare still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect." The main purpose of this statement is to–
(a) illustrate an example
(b) state an objection
(c) gain reader's sympathy
(d) justify an earlier statement
Q 37. Choose the verb that agrees with its subject.
Over the ripples________a small canoe.
(a) glide
(b) is glade
(c) glides
(d) are gliding
Q 38. Complete these sentences using the same verb in both sentences. Choose the present perfect tense in one and past simple tense in the other.
(a) As soon as I _____cooking, I'll call my friends to dinner.
(b) Naina_____her meeting just in time to catch the last bus home.
(a) finished, finished
(b) am finishing, finishes
(c) finished, finishes
(d) finish, finished
Q 39. Choose the correct word to fill the gap.
Medha printed her résumé on her best______.
(a) stationed
(b) stationery
(c) station
(d) stationary
Q 40. Choose the correct passive phrase according to the tense in bracket. the birds/ to feed (Future Perfect)
(a) the birds were being fed
(b) the birds would befed
(c) the birds will have been fed
(d) the birds will feed
Q 41. Carefully study the following rules of Subject Verb Agreement and choose the correct option.
I. If one of the words "each," "every," or "no" comes before the subject, the verb is plural.
II. The verb is singular if the two subjects separated by "and" to refer to the same person or thing.
(a) Only Iis correcto
(b) Only II is correct
(c) Both I & II are correct
(d) Both I & II are incorrect
Q 42. Choose the option which shows the incorrect use of the determiner.
(a) not much experience
(b) small experience
(c) a good deal of experience
(d) a little experience da
Q 43. Choose the option which uses the correct degree of the adjective used.
(a) School is most boring, but homework is more boring than school.
(b) School is more boring, but homework is boring than school.
(c) School is boring, but homework is more boring than school.
(d) School is boring, but homework is most boring than school.
Q 44. Choose the sentence which does not mean the same as others.
(a) Jupiter is the biggest planet in the solar system.
(b) Jupiter is bigger than any other planet in the solar system.
(c) Other planets in the solar system are bigger than Jupiter.
(d) No other planet in the solar system is as big as Jupiter.
Q 45. Which question tag will complete the sentence?
Madhusudan couldn't sing well, ________
(a) could he?
(b) musn't he?
(c) couldn't he?
(d) won't he?
Q 46. Choose the verb that agrees with its subject.
Either the actors or the director ________at fault.
(a) are
(b) is
(c) should
(d) would
Q 47. Choose the verb that agrees with its subject.
The quarterback and the coach ______having a conference.
(a) are
(b) is
(c) have
(d) has
Q 48. Which one of the given options is spelled correctly?
(a) shedule
(b) schedule
(c) schedul
(d) scheedul
Q 49. Which option shows the correct idiom phrase?
(a) Jump ship
(b) Float ship
(c) Swim ship
(d) Jostle ship
Q 50. Choose the correct from of the word to fill the gap.
The body showed no signs of______.
(a) life
(b) live
(c) lives
(d) lived
Q 51. Name the correct Tense used in the following sentence The heart patient is being prepared for the major operation.
(a) Present Perfect
(b) Present Progressive
(c) Simple Present
(d) Present Perfect Progressive
Q 52. Choose the odd one out.
(a) simple, simpler, simplest
(b) noisy, noisier, noisiest
(c) bad, worse, evil
(d) thin, thinner, thinnest
Q 53. Which one of the following sentences is correct?
(a) We must be at school at 8 o'clock, mustn't we?
(b) We must be at school at 8 o'clock, needn't we?
(c) We must be at school at 8 o'clock, aren't we?
(d) We must be at school at 8 o'clock, must we?
Q 54. Name the correct Tense used in the following sentence.
The cat is being taken to the vet's for treatment.
(a) Present Perfect Progressive
(b) Present Perfect
(c) Simple Present
(d) Present Progressive
Directions (55): "Necessity/ Clothing Items" include linens (sheets; pillowcase; blanket; towels) and clothing (undergarments; gym shorts; T-shirts; socks; pants; jacket; raingear; shoes or : boots).
"Contraband" includes altered, outof-place, or excesses of authorized property; and any item which an offender is prohibited to possess or obtain while in custody, unless received by the offender as the result of a State or Federal court order or legitimately through the litigation process. Two sub-groups of contraband are: (1) Dangerous Represents a threat to the security and safety of the unit, possession of which violates Agency rules, or State or Federal law.
Includes, but is not limited to: items related to security threat groups; weapons; intoxicants; currency or negotiable instruments; tobacco products; tools; ammunition; explosives; combustible or flammable items; altered, damaged, or repaired internal components or electrical cords of electrical equipment; cell phones; controlled substances; and authorized medicine, if not used in the manner prescribed. (2) Non-Dangerous - Represents a threat to management of the unit, possession of which violates Agency rules. Includes, but is not limited to: authorized property which has been altered, damaged, is in excess of allowable amounts, or is out of place (i.e., a razor at recreation, magazine in the dining hall); any item not authorized for the offender to possess; and any item made from State property without authorization.
Q 55. "Dangerous - Represents a threat to the security and safety of the unit". The threat to safety can be perceived by which of the following options?
(a) medicines as per prescription
(b) possession of items which violate Agency rules
(c) items of clothing
(d) none of these
Q 56. Identify the adjunct in the following sentence.
We finished our assignments before brat we went out.
(a) we finished
(b) our assignements
(c) before we went out
(d) none of these
Q 57. Which of the following options shows the following sentence in Passive voice?
Ajit told Abhijit to give up smoking.
(a) Ajit was told to give up smoking by Abhijit.
(b) Ajit told Abhijit to stop smoking.
(c) Abhijit was told to give up smoking by Ajit.
(d) Will Ajit and Abhijit give up har smoking?
Q 58. Change the direct speech into reported speech. Assume that the person speaking is Shyam.
"I don't go to the gym very often."
(a) Shyam said he goes to the gym very often.
(b) Shyam said I don't go to the som gym very often.
(c) Shyam said he didn't go to the wheton gym very often.
(d) I didn't go to the gym very laux te often Said Shyam.
Q 59. Change the direct speech into to reported speech. Use 'Gaurav said' to frame the answer. "He works in a bank".
(a) Said Gaurav he works in a bank.
(b) Gaurav said he worked in a bank,
(c) Gaurav said he works in a bank.
(d) He works in a bank said Gaurav.
Q 60. Fill in the blank to connect two parts of the sentence with appropriate words.
I will drop you at the airport so you ______about booking a cab.
(a) needn't worry
(b) can try
(c) won't worry
(d) should try
सामान्य हिन्दी
निर्देश (61-67 ): निम्नलिखित अपठित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए।
महापुरूषों के आदर्श जीवन चरित्र की देखा-देखी जातीय जीवन गठित होता है। आदर्श पुरूष उच्च प्रकृति के हुए, तो जाति की उन्नति हुई और निम्न प्रकृति के हुए, तो जाति की अवनति होती है। समान्य व्यक्ति मरन से डरता है, किंतु क्रांतिकारी महापुरूष मृत्यु को गले लगाते हैं। वे किन्ही ही लक्ष्यों के प्रति इतने समर्पित होते हैं कि उन्हें जीवन खेल-सा लगता है। ऐसे ही एक क्रांतिकारी महापुरूष थे भगत सिंह। वे जीवन भर मृत्यु के साधक और स्वप्नदर्शी रहे। भगत सिंह बचपन से ही देश की स्वतंत्रता और क्रांति के बारे में एकांत में बैठ कर सोचा करते थे। उन्होंने अपने पिता के अस्वस्थ होने पर अपनी बहन से कहा था, "पिताजी को कुछ हो गया तो मैं घर नहीं संभालूँगा। यह काम मेरे लिए नहीं है। मझे तो देश के कार्य में ही तृप्ति मिलेगी। 'भगत सिंह के केश बचपन में बहुत घने थे और न्यादा बढ़ते थे। उनके केशो को सवारने में उनकी बहन का काफी समय लग जाता था। एक बार जब उनकी बहन ने शिर के थोड़. केश काटने को कहा तो भगत सिंह बोले, "मैं थोड़े नहीं, सारे केश कटा दूंगा, पर ऐसे समय, जब सारी सिख जाति मेरे इस कृत्य पर गर्व करेगी।
Q 61. आदर्श पुरूष उच्च प्रकृति का हो तो क्या होता है?
(a) राष्ट्र की उन्नति
(b) जाति की उन्नति
(c) जाति की अवनति
(d) राष्ट्र की अवनति
Q 62. क्रान्तिकारी महापुरुष क्या करते हैं?
(a) मृत्यु को गले लगाते हैं
(b) मृत्यु से डरते हैं
(c) साधना में लीन रहते हैं
(d) सुखी जीवन व्यतीत करते हैं
Q 63. भगत सिंह बचपन में एकांत में क्या सोंचा करते थें?
(a) देश की स्वतंत्रा तथा क्रांति के बारे में
(b) अपनी शादी के विषय में
(c) अपनी बहन की शादी के विषय में
(d) अपने केशों के विषय में
Q 64. भगत सिंह ने केश कटवाने की सहमति कब देने को कहा ?
(a) जब सिख जाति गर्व महसूस करेगी
(b) जब केश घने और लम्बे थे
(c) जब बहन ने कटवाने को कहा
(d) जब वे केश सवारते थे
Q 65. किसी जाति की उन्नति किस प्रकार के व्यक्तियों से होती है ?
(a) क्रान्तिकारियों के उन्नत विचारों से
(b) उच्च आदर्शों का दिखावा करने से
(c) सामान्य ध्येय रखने वाले से
(d) उच्च प्रकृति के आदर्श पुरुषों से
Q 66. मरने से कौन डरता है?
(a) सामान्य व्यक्ति
(b) महापुरूष
(c) क्रान्तिकारी
(d) सभी लोग
Q 67. भगत सिंह कौन थे?
(a) क्रान्तिकारी
(b) महापुरूष
(c) क्रान्तिकारी महापुरूष
(d) सामान्य पुरुष
निर्देश (68-74 ) : निम्नलिखित अपठित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए।
एक सम्राट ने अपने देश के चित्रकार को बुलाकर कहा कि वह उसके राज्य में से एक बहुत मासूम चेहरा तथा एक बहुत क्रूर चेहरा ढूंढकर, उसका उसके सामने चित्र बनाकर ले आए। चित्रकार ने कुछ समय खोजबीन की। उसे एक साधारण बस्ती में एक मिट्टी से सना हुआ बहुत मासूम बच्चा मिला। चित्रकार ने उसका चित्र बनाया तथा राजा को दिया। राजा को चित्र पसंद आया। उसने चित्रकार को पुरस्कार दिया। अब चित्रकार ने क्रूर चेहरे की खोजबीन आरंभ कर दी। बहुत स्थानों पर गया परंतु, जैसी क्रूरता चित्रकार दिखाना चाहता था, वह उसे नहीं मिली। कई वर्ष बीत गए। एक दिन चित्रकार राजा से अनुमति लेकर करागार में गया। वहां उसने एक कैदी देखा जिसके चेहरे से क्रूरता टपक रही थी, चित्रकार ने उसका चित्र बनाना आरंभ किया। वह उसे मासूम बच्चे के चित्र से लिा कर देख रहा था। कैदी पूछा- "यह किसका चित्र है?" चित्रकर ने बताया कि यह चित्र उसने बहुत पहले एक मासूम बच्चे का बनाया था। यह सुनकर कैदी फूट-फूटकर रोने लगा। चित्रकार ने पूछा- "क्या हुआ?" कैदी बोला- "यह मेरे बचपन का चित्र है। "यह सुनकर चित्रकार चकित रह गया। उसने कैदी से पूछा- "तुम्हारी यह दशा कैसे हुई?" कैदी ने संक्षिप्त उत्तर दिया- "परिस्थितियाँ।"
Q 68. उक्त गद्यांश का उचित शीर्षक होगा:
(a) सम्राट
(b) चित्रकार
(c) कैदी
(d) परिस्थितियाँ
Q 69. राजा किस प्रकार के दो चित्र बनावाना चाहता था?
(a) मासूम और क्रूर चेहरे का
(b) बच्चे और कैदी का
(c) बच्चे और बड़े का
(d) स्वयं सम्राट का
Q 70. चित्रकार ने पहले किसका चित्र बनाया?
(a) क्रूर चेहरे का
(b) मासूम बच्चे का
(c) सम्राट का
(d) चित्रकार का
Q 71. चित्रकार क्रूर चेहरे का चित्र क्यों नहीं बना सका?
(a) उसे क्रूर चेहरा नही दिखा
(b) सभी चेहरे मासूम थे
(c) सभी क्रूर चेहरे कैद में थे
(d) देश में सब मांसूम थे
Q 72. मासूम बच्चा क्रूर कैसे बन गया ?
(a) परिस्थितियों के कारण
(b) भूलवश
(c) बड़ा होने के कारण
(d) अपराध करने के कारण
Q 73. सम्राट ने पुरस्कार किसे दिया?
(a) कैदी को
(b) बच्चे को
(c) चित्रकार को
(d) मासूम को
Q 74. चित्रकार को मिट्टी से सना हुआ कौन मिला?
(a) मासूम चेहरे वाला बच्चा
(b) क्रूर चेहरा
(c) वृद्ध चेहरा
(d) गड़रिया
निर्देश (75-80 ) : निम्नलिखित अपठित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए।
खुशामद तो मानव की ही नहीं अपितु भगवान की भी करनी होती है। हमारा कोई भी धर्म-ग्रंथ यहां तक की काव्य और नाटक भी उठा कर देख लीजिए आरंभ में मंगलाचरण अर्थात देवताओं की खुशामद जरूर होती है। देवताओं की खुशामद क्यों? इसलिए क्योंकि वे प्रेरणा देते हैं, स्फूर्ति देते हैं। स्तुति न करो तो कुपित हो जाते है। मुगलों के जमाने में कोशिश करने का खास ढंग होता था। आम दरबार में जब शहंशाह पधारतें थे, तो बंदीजन खास अंदाज और लहजें में-"हुजूर तशरीफ ला रहे हैं" कहते थे। खुशामद के आलंबन चाहे युग-युग के अनुसार बदलते रहे हों, पर मूल भावना वहीं रही है। : खुशामद से कौन खुश नहीं होता? एक बात संसार में सर्वमान्य है। नम व्यक्ति में योग्यता एवं तेज बुद्धि दोनों होती है, किंतु खुशामदी में न ही याग्यता होती है न बुद्धि । इन्हीं कमजोरियों को : छिपाने के लिए वह खुशामद का मार्ग अपनाता है। जो व्यक्ति खुशामदी से अपना कार्य चलाते हैं, उनके बारे में भी यह बात सच है। चापलूस व्यक्ति रिश्वत देते हुए खुशामद करते हैं, तथा अपनी नौकरी में तरक्की या पदोन्नति पाते हैं, जो आधिकारी ऐसे पदोन्नति देता है, वह इसी पद्धति से अधिकारी बना होता है।
Q 75. खुशामद किसकी होती है?
(a) मानव और भगवान दोनों की
(b) सिर्फ मानव की
(c) सिर्फ देवताओं की
(d) किसी की भी नहीं होती
Q 76. देवताओं की खुशामद क्यों की जाती है?
(a) मंगलाचरण के लिए
(b) भय के कारण
(c) प्रेरणा एवं स्फूर्ति के लिए
(d) स्वयं की इच्छा से
Q 77. नम व्यक्ति में कौन से गुण होते है
(a) योग्यता एवं तेज बुद्धि
(b) सच्चाई ओर योग्यता
(c) नम्रता और योग्यता
(d) स्फूर्ति एवं तेज बुद्धि
Q 78. खुशामद से अपना कार्य करवाने वाले के विषय में क्या सही है?
(a) उन्हें कार्य नहीं आता है
(b) वे चालाक होते है
(c) वे आलसी होते है
(d) वे खुशामद से अपनी कमजोरी छुपाते
Q 79. खुशामदी व्यक्ति में कौन से गुण नहीं होते है?
(a) सच्चाई और योग्यता
(b) योग्यता एवं बुद्धि
(c) नम्रता और योग्यता
(d) स्फूर्ति एवं तेज बुद्धि
Q 80. "हुजूर तशरीफ ला रहे हैं" उक्त वाक्य कौन कहते थे।
(a) अधिकारीगण
(b) बन्दीजन
(c) शहंशाह
(d) सभी लोग
Q 81. उच्चारण स्थान के आधार पर निम्नलिखित में से कोन सा "दंत्य" है?
(a) प
(b) उ
(c) म
(d) ल
Q 82. भाषा को बोलते समय होने वाले उतार-चढ़ाव को क्या कहते हैं?
(a) अनुतान
(b) अवरोह
(c) आरोह
(d) संगम
Q 83. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा शब्द वर्तनी के आधार पर सही है?
(a) तात्कलिक
(b) तत्कालिक
(c) तात्कालिक
(d) तातकालिक
Q 84. "क्+ष" से क्या तात्पर्य है?
(a) क्ष
(b) कश
(c) कष
(d) क्श
Q 85. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी बोली "राजस्थानी" के अंतर्गत नहीं आती है?
(a) मगधी
(b) मेवाड़ी
(c) मेवाती
(d) मारवाड़ी
Q 86. निम्नलिखित में से कौन एक पहाड़ी बोली है?
(a) बंगरू
(b) हाड़ोती
(c) कौरवी
(d) मंडियाली
Q 87. "हाड़ोती" बोली.............. उपभाषा के अंतर्गत आती है?
(a) राजस्थानी
(b) बिहारी
(c) पहाड़ी
(d) कन्नड़
Q 88. रसखान, रहीम, देव, रत्नाकर आदि कतिव मुख्यतः किस बोली में रचना करते थे?
(a) अवधी
(b) ब्रजभाषा
(c) बघेली
(d) मगधी
Q 89. "शीतल" शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद करने पर प्रत्यय के रूप में क्या प्राप्त होगा?
(a) ल
(b) अल
(d) ल्
(c) तल
Q 90. निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द में उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय का एक साथ प्रयोग किया गया है?
(a) कृपालुता
(b) अभिमानी
(c) भारतीयता
(d) हिस्सेदार
Q 91. "इंसानियत" का संधि-विच्छेद क्या होगा?
(a) इंसान+इयत
(b) इंसानी+अत
(c) इंसानी +2 +यत
(d) इंसान+आयत
Q 92. निम्नलिखित में से किस शब्द में एक से अधिक प्रकार के समास पाए जाने की संभावना है?
(a) चंद्रशेखर
(b) वेद-पुराण
(c) चतुर्भुज
(d) वचनामृत
Q 93. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा समास भगवान् 'श्रीकृष्ण" को संबोधित करने हेतु प्रयुक्त नहीं किया जाता?
(a) घनश्याम
(b) त्रिलोचन
(c) पीताम्बर
(d) कंजनोचन
Q 94. "लंबोदर" में कौन सा समास पाया जाता है?
(a) बहुव्रीहि
(b) द्विगु
(c) द्वंद्व
(d) कर्मधारय
Q 95. निम्नलिखित समास-विग्रह को अन्य किस नाम से संबोधित किया जाता है?
(a) शनि
(b) सूर्य
(c) गणेश
(d) यम
Q 96. "शेरनी" कौन सी संज्ञा है ?
(a) समूहवाचक संज्ञा
(b) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा
(c) द्रव्यवाचक संज्ञा
(d) जातिवाचक संज्ञा
Q 97. "चावल" शब्द क्या है?
(a) स्त्रीलिंग
(b) पुल्लिंग
(c) उभयलिंग
(d) इनमें से कोई भी नहीं
Q 98. 'आँखें बिछाना" इससे क्या समझते हैं?
(a) याद करना
(b) कोसना
(c) घूरना
(d) प्यार से प्रतीक्षा करना
Q 99. "गाड़ी" कौन सा लिंग है?
(a) स्त्रीलिंग
(b) पुल्लिंग
(c) उभयलि
(d) इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q 100. "गर्दन पर वार" होना क्या होता है?
(a) रक्षा के लिए पुकारना
(b) पीछे पड़ना
(c) मारना
(d) तंग करना
Q 101. "रोम रोम खिलना" का अर्थ बताओ?
(a) रोमांचित होना
(b) खुश होना
(c) मुस्कुराना
(d) बहुत प्रसन्न होना
Q 102. निम्न शब्दों में से “पर्वत " का पर्यायवाची क्या है?
(a) पहाड़
(b) नभ
(c) दिनकर
(d) अम्बर
Q 103. "आनंद" निम्न में से क्या है?
(a) जातिवाचक संज्ञा
(b) व्यक्तिवाचक संज्ञा
(c) भाववाचक संज्ञा
(d) समूहवाचक संज्ञा
Q 104. "चन्द्रमा " का पर्यायवाची क्या होगा?
(a) राकेश
(b) आभा
(c) रौशनी
(d) प्रकाश
Q 105. राकेश, आभा, रौशनी, प्राकश आदि क्या है?
(a) सर्वनाम
(b) संज्ञा
(c) क्रिया
(d) विशेषण
Q 106. "किसलय" का पर्यायवाची बताए?
(a) पत्र
(b) पर
(c) पटसन
(d) पड़ताल
Q 107. इनमें से कौन सा शब्द संज्ञा है?
(a) इंमानदार
(b) लड़का
(c) सुंदरता
(d) करना
Q 108. "हरिप्रिया" का पर्यायवाची बताए ?
(a) दुर्गा
(b) काली
(c) लक्ष्मी
(d) सरस्वती
Q 109. "दाँतों तले ऊँगली दबाना" इस मुहावरे का अर्थ बताए ?
(a) पुलकित होना
(b) थरथराना
(c) घबराना
(d) दंग रह जाना
Q 110. "आलोक" का विपरीतार्थक शब्द कया है?
(a) रात्रि
(b) अद्भुत
(c) अज्ञात
(d) अंधकार
Q 111. अंधे की लाठी" मुहावरे का........उपयुक्त मतलब नहीं है।
(a) एकमात्र सहारा
(b) मदद
(c) शरण
(d) द्वार
Q 112. 'अल्प" का विलोम शब्द कौन सा है?
(a) बड़ा
(b) छोटा
(c) संक्षेप
(d) सूक्ष्म
Q 113. 'दुबला' एक.........विशेषण है।
(a) भाववाचक
(b) संख्यावाचक
(c) परिणामवाचक
(d) क्रियाविशेषण
Q 114. 'तीसरा आदमी मुर्ख है' - उक्त वाक्य में "तीसरा " क्या है ?
(a) संख्यावाचक विशेषण
(b) गुणवाचक विशेषण
(c) परिणामवाचक विशेषण
(d) क्रियाविशेषण
Q 115. काल के मुख्यतः कितने भेद होते हैं?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Q 116. 'आने वाले समय से' किस काल का बोध होता है ?
(a) भविष्यत् काल
(b) वर्तमान काल
(c) भूतकाल
(d) समान काल
Q 117. 'वाग्युद्ध' का संधि विच्छेद निम्न में से क्या होगा?
(a) वा + युद्ध
(b) वाग + युद्ध
(c) वाक + युद्ध
(d) वाक् + युद्ध
Q 118. 'अतएव' का संधि विच्छेद निम्न में से क्या होगा?
(a) अत:+एव
(b) अत+एव
(c) अत: इव
(d) अति+एव
Q 119. दिए गए अनेक शब्दों के लिए एक शब्द चुनें।
(a) प्रसूत
(b) अछवानी
(c) अन्नप्राशन
(d) महाभोज
Q 120. लोगों की भीड़ अनाज का ...... क्या होगा?
(a) समूह
(b) झुण्ड
(c) ढेर
(d) गुच्छा
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